1.The current I in the given network.
a) 1A b) 3A c) 5A d) 7A

2.For the Delta- Wye transformation in given figure, the value of the resistance R is.
a) 1/3 ohms b) 2/3 ohms c) 3/2 ohms d) 3 ohms

3.In the given network, the Thevenin’s equivalent as seen by the load resistance Rl is
a) V=10 V, R= 2ohms b) V=10V, R=3 ohms c) V=15V, R= 2ohms d) V=15V, R=3 ohms

4.The current I in a series R-L circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v is the voltage across the R-L combination then i
a) lags v by 45 degree b) is in-phase with v c) leads v by 45 d) lags v by 90

5.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms

6.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX b) Z = R c) Z = jX d) Z = R –jX

7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (-2t/RC) b) V/R e^ (-t/RC) c) V/2R e^ (-2t/RC) d) V/2R e^ (-t/RC)

8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0 b) LC c) R/L d) RC

9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is
a) 2 ∟-15 b) 2 ∟15 c) √2∟-15 d) √2∟15

10.The Y-parameter matrix (mA/V) of the two-port given network is
a) [2 -1 -1 2] b) [2 1 -1 2] c) [1 -2 -1 2] d) [2 1 1 2]

11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is
a) 16 b) 25 c) 100 d) 125

12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is
a) 1,2,3 b) 1,4,6,8,3 c) 5,6,8,3 d) 4,6,7,3

13.The Y-parameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 -1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is
a) ½ ohms b) 1/√2 ohms c) 1 ohms d) 2 ohms

14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is
a) -10 V b) -1 V c) 0V d) 10 V

15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is
a) R-j(wL/√2) ohms b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms c) R-j√2wL ohms d) R-j√2wL ohms

16.The threshold voltage V is negative for
a) an n-channel enhancement MOSFET b) an n-channel depletion MOSFET c) an p-channel depletion MOSFET d) an p-channel JFET

17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3. Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is
a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3 b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3 c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3 d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3}

18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a P-type semiconductor were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/V-s, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an N-type semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is
a) µn = 2400 cm^2/V-s b) µn = 1200 cm^2/V-s c) µn = 1000 cm^2/V-s d) µn = 600 cm^2/V-s

19.A common LED is made up of
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) direct semiconductor c) degenerate semiconductor d) indirect semiconductor

20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the
a) tunneling effect b) avalanche breakdown c) impact ionization d) excess heating of the junction.

21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is
a) 51 b) 49 c) 1 d) 0.02

22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a
a) Zener diode b) Schottky diode c) photo diode d) Tunnel diode


23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a P-N junction of band-gap energy 1.2 eV, (En - Ep) should be
a) greater than 1.2eV b) less than 1.2eV c) equal to 1.1eV d) equal to 0.7eV

24.In a P-well fabrication process, the substrate is
a) N-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
b) P-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
c) N-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET
d) P-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET

25.In a MOS capacitor with n-type silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = -0.41 V and the flat-band voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is
a) -0.82 V b) -0.41 V c) 0.41 V d) 0.82

Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes.
26.Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Both D1 and D2 are ON.
b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF.
c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF.
d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.

27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are
a) 2V and 1.1 mA b) 0V and 0 mA c) -2V and 0.7 mA d) 4V and 1.3 mA

28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a
a) common emitter follows a common base
b) common base follows a common collector
c) common collector follows a common base
d) common base follows a common emitter

29.Inside a 741 op-amp, the last functional block is a
a) differential amplifier b) level shifter c) class-A power amplifier d) class-AB power amplifier

30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are
a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA
b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA
c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA
d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA

31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the
a) input impedance of the amplifier b) output impedance of the amplifier c) distortion in the amplifier d) gain of the amplifier

32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter
a) r0 b) r∏ c) gm d) β

33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in pass-band and stop-band?
a) Chebyshev type I b) Bessel c) Chebyshev type II d) Elliptic

34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is
a) 1 b) -1 c) -1.02 d) 1.02

35.Assume the op-amps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peak-to-peak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a
a) sine wave b) square wave c) pulse train d) triangular wave

36.In a common source amplifier, the mid-band voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is
a) 6 MHz b) 15 MHz c) 150 MHz d) 1.5 GHz

37.An op-amp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000, CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the op-amp is
a) 14 V b) 24 V c) -6 V c) -8 V

38.The op-amp in the circuit in given figure has a non-zero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is
a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt b) – (1/RC)|vs(t)dt c) –V d) +V

39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the duty-cycle of the output waveform Vo
a) increases by a factor of 2 b) increases by a factor of 1.44 c) remains constant d) decreases by a factor of 1.44

40.Assume the op-amp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is
a) 3.2 Vi b) 4 Vi c) 9 Vi d) 10 Vi

41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Y¯ + Z)(X¯ + Z¯)(X + Y) is
a) XYZ+XZ¯+Y¯Z b) X¯YZ¯+XZ+X¯Y¯ c) X¯YZ¯+XZ+YZ d) XYZ+X¯Y¯

42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to
a) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ b) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯D c) F = AB¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ d) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABCD

43.The Boolean function F = A¯D¯+B¯D can be realized by one of the following figures

44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is
a) A¯B¯+B¯C¯+AC  b) AB¯+B¯C¯+AC¯  c) AB¯+B¯C+AC  d) A¯B¯+B¯C+A¯C

45. Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) Both latch and flip-flop are edge triggered.
b) A latch is level triggered and a flip-flop is edge triggered.
c) A latch is edge triggered and a flip-flop is level triggered.
d) Both latch and flip-flop are level triggered.

46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode
e) increases the propagation delay
f) increases the power consumption
g) prevents saturation of the output transistor
h) keeps the transistor in cutoff region

47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents
a) PROM b) EPROM c) EEPROM d) PLA

48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter
a) Johnson counter b) Ring counter c) Ripple counter d) Up-down counter

49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a
a) 4 bit register b) 8 bit register c) 16 bit register d) 32 bit register

50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored
a) at the address contained in the register pair
b) in the register pair
c) in the accumulator
d) in a fixed location of the memory

51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is
a) x[n] b) x[n-1] c) x[n] – x[n-1] d) 0.5(x[n-1] + x[n])

52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal
a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4)) b) x[n] = u[n] + u[-n] c) x[n] = ∑{∂[n-4k]-∂[n-1-4k]} where k = -∞to ∞ d) x(t) = e^ (-1+j)t

53. If the input-output relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = -∞ to 2t
a) linear, time-invariant and unstable
b) linear, non-causal and unstable
c) linear, causal and time invariant
d) non-causal, time invariant and unstable

55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is
a) a real and odd function
b) a complex function
c) a purely imaginary function
d) a purely imaginary and odd function

56. The laplace transform of given signal is
a) –A((1-e^cs)/s) b) A((1-e^cs)/s) c) A((1-e^-cs)/s) d) –A((1-e^-cs)/s)

57. If X(z) is the z-transform of x[n] = (1/2)^ |n|, the ROC of X(z) is
a) |z| > 2 b) |z| < 2 c) 0.5<|z|<2 d) the entire z-plane

58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are
a) constant and equal to each other
b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w
c) a constant and τg is proportional to w
d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w

59. A signal m(t), band-limited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cut-off frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is
a) 20 kHz b) 40kHz c) 57 kHz d) 77 kHz

60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is                                                       a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are
a) 2 and 5 b) 0.5 and √5 c) 0.5 and 5 d) 2 and √5

62. The time required for the response of a linear time-variant system to reach half the final value for the first time is                                                                                                                                                         a) delay time b) peak time c) rise time d) decay time

64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K,respectively are                                                                                 
a) 2 and 10 b) -2 and 10 c) 10 and 2 d) 2 and -10

65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is
a) -0.5 b) -2.5 c) -3.5 d) -5.5

66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is

67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t) of the system is

69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for 0<=K<∞, are
a) 0 and 270 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 90 and 180

71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous
 a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal            
b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal

72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0}is
a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

73. If a single-tone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is
a) 5W b) 10W c) 12W d) 15W

74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a
a) higher local oscillatorn frequency b) crystal oscillator c) narrow band IF filter d) narrow band filter at RF stage

75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the
a) sampler type b) quantizer type c) number of levels of the quantizer d) sampling rate

76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AM-DSB-SC signal
a) Ratio detector b) Foster-Seeley discriminator c) Product demodulator d) Balanced-slpoe detector

77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal
a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct b) A cos2πfct, - A sinπfct c) - A cos2πfct, A sinπfct d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct

78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal
a) matched filter b) phase-locked loop c) envelope detector d) product demodulator

79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency
a) |F – Fc|Tb = 0 b) |F – Fc|Tb = 1 c) |F – Fc|Tb = 2 d) |F – Fc|Tb = 4

80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having one-sided power spectral density N0, is
a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0) b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0) c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0) d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0)

81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is
a) –p(t-T), 0<=t<=T b) –p(T-t), 0<=t<=T c) p(t-T), 0<=t<=T d) p(T-t), 0<=t<=T

82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as
a) CDMA b) FDMA c) TDMA d) MC-CDMA

83. GSM system uses TDMA with
a) 32 users per channel b) 16 users per channel c) 8 users per channel d) 4 users per channel

84. If Rx(τ) is the auto-correlation function of a zero-mean wide-sense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true?
a) Rx(τ) = Rx(-τ) b) Rx(τ) = -Rx(-τ) c) σx^2 = Rx(0) d) |Rx(τ)| <=Rx(0)

85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[X-EX]^3 of a random variable X is
a) EX^3 – E^3X b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2 c) 3EX^3 – E^3X d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2

86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is
a) ¼ b) 1 c) 7/4 d) 2

87. A channel has a signal-to-noise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is
a) 600 bps b) 1200 bps c) 4800 bps d) 7200 bps

88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) XZ d) YZ

89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0 b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds c) ∫s A X dS = -∫v (del X A)dv d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds

90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) del X E = - ∂B/∂t b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t c) del.D = ρv d) del.B = 0

91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by
a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m

92. The skin depth of a non-magnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^-1 is
a) 0.0015 mm b) 0.015 mm c) 0.15 mm d) 1.5 mm

93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is
a) 2π rad/m b) 20π/3 rad/m c) 20π rad/m d) 2π *10^5 rad/m

94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is
a) 100 ohms b) 75√2 ohms c) 120 ohms d) 150 ohms

95. A two-port network characterized by the S-parameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90 0.9 L90 0.2 L0] Is
a) both reciprocal and lossless b) reciprocal, but not lossless c) lossless, but not reciprocal
d) neither reciprocal nor lossless

96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is
a) 1 GHz b) 3 GHz c) 6 GHz d) 9 GHz

97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along z-axis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape?
a) x=0 b) y=0 c) z=0 d) ø=45

98. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain
b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal
c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain
d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction

99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is
a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.64 d) 2

100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre?
a) It can support multiple modes
b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core
d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices.

GENERAL ABILITY TEST 

101. Sarnath is situated in the state of
a) MP b) Bihar c) Punjab d) UP

102. Green house effect is due to the increase of atmospheric
a) CO2 level b) SO2 level c) CO level d) N2 level

103. In the month of July, it is winter in a) New York b) Beijing c) Sydney d) London

104. The chairman of the Planning commission of India is
a) The prime minister b) The vice-president c) The union finance minister d) The union commerce minister

105. The satellite launch vehicle that placed a number of satellites ito orbit in May 2008 is
a) PSLV-C7 b) PSLV-C8 c) PSLV-C9 d) PSLV-C10

106. DRDO was formed in a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1954 d) 1958

107. SAMYUKTA is developed for the use of a) Navy b) Army c) Air force d) RAC

108. DARL 202 is a variety of a) pea b) garlic c) capsicum d) tomato

109. TRISHUL is
a) a surface to surface battlefield missile b) a quick reaction surface to air missile c) an intermediate range ballistic missile d) a supersonic cruise missile

110. HUMSA is a
a) sonar b) tank c) mine d) night vision device

111. The value of 1+2i / 3-4i + 2-I / 5i , where i^2 is -1, is a) -5/2 b) 5/2 c) 2/5 d) -2/5

112. The particular solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 2 dy/dx + 5y = 0 satisfying the conditions y(0)=0 and y’(0)=1 is
a) y=1/2 e^-x cos2x b) y=1/2 e^-x sin4x c) y=1/2 e^-x sin2x d) y=1/2 e^-x cos4x

113. For the vectors A=3i-2j+k and B=2i-k, the value of (A*B).A is a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

114. The orthogonal trajectory of the family of curves x^2-y^2 = a (where a is a constant) and passing through the point (1,1) is
a) y=-1/x b) y=1/x c) y=-x d) y=x

115. The value of the line integral ∫ y^2 dx + 2xydy over the curve x=accost, y=asint is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

116. The n-th partial sum of the infinite series 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + 1/3*4+……1/n*(n+1)…….. a) 1/n+1 b) n+2/n+1 c) n/n+1 d) n-1/n+1

117. The complex-valued function f(z)=e^z is analytic for a) no z b) all z c) real z only d) imaginary z only

118. The inverse of the matrix [ cos A sin A -sin A cos A] is a) [ -cos A Sin A b) [cos A sin A} c) [cos A -sin A d) [cos A -sin A sin A cos A] sin A -cos A] -sin A cos A] sin A cos A]

119. Consider the function f(x) defined as F(x) = 3x-1, x<0 0, x=0 2x+5, x>0
In the following table, List I shows 4 expressions for limits of f(x) and List II indicates the values of the limits
List I List II
P.Lim x->2 f(x) 1. -1
Q.Lim x->0+ f(x) 2. 9
R.Lim x->0- f(x) 3. -10
S.Lim x->-3 f(x) 4. 5
The correct matches are
a) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1 C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 D) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1

120. Two events A and B with probability 0.5 and 0.7, respectively, have joint probability of 0.4. The probability that neither A nor B happens is
a) 0.2 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.8

121. Consider the differential equation
X^2 d^2/dx^2 + x dy/dx + (x^2 - 4)y = 0. The statement which is not true for it is
a) It is a linear second order ordinary differential equation
b) It can not be reduced to a differential equation with constant coefficients
c) X=0 is a regular singular point
d) It is a non-homogeneous second order ordinary differential equation

122. The sum of two numbers is 16 and the sum of their squares is a minimum. The two numbers are
a) 10,6 b) 9,7 c) 8,8 d) 5,11

123. The value of the definite integral 0∫(π/2)^(1/3) x^2 sin(x^3)dx is
a) -1/3 b) 0 c) 1 d) 1/3

124. A circle C2 is concentric with the circle C1 : x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -12 =0 and has a radius twice that of C1. The equation of the circle C2 is
a) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -13 =0 b) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -87 =0 c) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -100 =0 d) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -88 =0

125. Consider the quadratic equation x^2 + px + q =0. If p and q are roots of the equation, the values of p and q are
a) p=0, q=0 only b) p=1, q=-2 only c) p=0, q=0 and p=1, q=-2 d) p=0, q=0 and p=-2, q=1

126. Consider the list of words: etiquette, accommodate, forty, exaggerate, continous, independent, receipt. The number of misspelt words are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

127. Consider the following sentences
1. A few friends he has are all very rich.
2. Do not insult the weak.
3. The later of the two persons was more interesting.
4. All the informations were correct.
Out of these sentences, the grammatically correct sentence is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

128. The appropriate auxiliary verb to fill in the blank of the sentence “Gandhi knew that he __ soon be jailed.”is
a) would b) will c) shall d) may

129. The number of missing punctuation marks in the sentence “Rajesh along with Amit went to the market.”is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

130. The meaning of the word PLAGIARISM is
a) theft of public money b) theft of ideas c) belief in one god d) belief in many gods

132. ACROPHOBIA is the abnormal fear of
a) open spaces b) height c) fire d) water

133. The appropriate pair of prepositions to fill in the blank in the sentence “He was angry __ me, because my remarks were aimed __ him.”is
a) at,to b) with, at c) with, to d) at, for

134. The appropriate word(s) to fill up the blank in the sentence “ I remember __ voices in the middle of the night.”is (are)
a) hear b) to hear c) hearing d) heard

135. The passive voice form of the sentence “I have known him for a long time.”is
a) He is known to me for a long time.
b) He is known by me for a long time.
c) He has been known to me for a long time.
d) He has been known by me for a long time.

136. If kennel is to a dog, then __ is to a hen.
a) nest b) coop c) hole d) stable

137. If NATION is to 5236765, then NOTION is to
a) 573675 b) 563765 c) 576375 d) 557365

138. The next two numbers of the series 3,5,11,21 are
a) 34 and 52 b) 34 and 53 c) 35 and 52 d) 35 and 53

139. A, B and C are three places in India with longitudes 80E, 85 E and 90 E respectively. Which one of the following statements about the local times of the places is true?
a) Local time of C is ahead of that of B.
b) Local time of B is ahead of that of C.
c) Local time of A is ahead of that of C.
d) A, B and C all have the same local time.

140. In this question, notations +, / and * are used as follows
A + B means A is the husband of B.
A / B means A is the sister of B.
A * B means A is the son of B.
With these relations, the relationship
denoted by P / Q * R is
a) P is son of R
b) P is daughter of R
c) P is uncle of R
d) P is father of R

141. If DELHI is written as EDHIL, then PARIS is written as
a) APRIS b) SARIP c) SAPIR d) APISR

142. The number of prime numbers between 10 and 50 is
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13

143. The odd one in the list : LAN, TCP/IP, HACKER and KILLER is
a) LAN b) TCP/IP c) KILLER d) HACKER

144. SAW is to carpenter as SCALPEL is to
a) surgeon b) mason c) plumber d) tailor

ANSWERS

1) d)Uttarpradesh
2) a) co2
3) c) sydney
4) a) prime minister
5) c) PSLV C9
6) d) 1958
7) b) army
8) don't know
119) b) quick reaction surface to air missile
110) a) sonar
111 to 25 simple math problem
126) d) 4
127) might be sentence 2
128) b) will
129) c) 2
130) b) theft of ideas
131) c) permanent
132) b) height
133) b) with,at
134)b) to hear
135)d) he has been known by me for a long time
136) b) coop
137)a) 573675
138)d) 35,53
139)a) local time of C is ahead of that of B( not confirmed)
140) b) P is daughter of R
141) d) APISR
142) b) 11
143) c) killr
144) a) surgeon
145)d)
146) c)
147) b)
148) c)
149) b)
150) c)

click below links to download your choice of books related to Computer Graphics:

Computer graphics, Hearn and Baker, PHI

Computer Graphics, Foley, PE-LPE

Introduction to Computer Graphics

Principles of Computer Graphics-Theory and Practice Using OpenGL and Maya



                                                          

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Software engineering – A practitioner’s Approach, Roger S. Pressman

Software engineering, Ian Sommervile, Person education 

Software Engineering - A Practical Guide To User Requirements - Catherine Courage & Kathy Baxter


                                          

click below links to download your choice of books related to UNIX and SHELL Programming:

The Design of Unix Operating System, Maurice J. Bach, Pearson Education

The Design of Unix Operating System,Maurice J. Bach, Pearson Education (djvu)

Unix Concepts and Applications, Sumitabh Das

Advanced UNIX Programming by Richard Stevens

A Guide to UNIX Using Linux by Michael Palmer

The Unix Haters Handbook

Links for Online Study:

The Unix Programming Environment by M. Burgess

Programming the Unix/Linux Shell by C. Cantin

Teach Yourself Shell Programming by S. Veeraraghavan

The Unix Shell Guide

Here you can download all the Ebooks and also the Solution which is either on syllabus of B.Tech/B.E. or reference book for Gate And IES. Hopefully it will help you.
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UNIX and SHELL Programming

Software Engineering

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Basic Electronics

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Microprocessor & Interfaces

Principal of Communication System

What is SAIL
Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) is the leading steel-making company in India. It is a fully integrated iron and steel maker, producing both basic and special steels for domestic construction, engineering, power, railway, automotive and defence industries and for sale in export markets. SAIL is also among the five Maharatnas of the country's Central Public Sector Enterprises.
                     Hindustan Steel Private Limited was set up on January 19, 1954.The registered office was originally in New Delhi. It moved to Calcutta in July 1956, and ultimately to Ranchi in December 1959.HSL was initially started to handle the steel plant at Rourkela.  But afterwards completion of other steel plants such as Bhilai, Durgapur there was a need of one managing organization. Thus a new centralized organization came up on 24th January, 1973 known as SAIL, Steel Authority of India. Today it is the most trusted Steel organization of India.With a turnover of Rs.  47,103 crore and more than 131,910 employees, it produces 13.5 million  metric tons annually and is the 16th largest steel producer in the  world.More about SAIL please visit http://www.sail.co.in.

Eligibilities for  SAIL
Qualification for SAIL Management Trainee Technical
A full time degree in Engineering /MCA with 65% marks obtained from the average of all semesters is required. The degree should be under any of the following disciplines - Mechanical, Electrical, Metallurgy, Civil, E&T,Instrumentation, Ceramics, Chemical, Computer Science and Mining Engineering. SC/ST/PWD and Departmental Candidates who have Bachelors' degree with 50% marks and MBA/PG Diploma in Management in the relevant discipline with just 50% marks are eligible to apply . SC/ST/PWD and Departmental Candidates with an Engineering Degree in the required disciplines and with just 55% marks in the same are eligible to apply . Management Trainees (Technical) post, candidates having degree in related disciplines can also apply against their respective discipline.
The eligible related engineering disciplines are marked against the respective main disciplines as shown below:
Mechanical --- Mechanical / Production / Industrial Engg / Production & Industrial Engg / Thermal / Mechanical & Automation .
Electrical --- Electrical / Electrical & Electronics / Electrical , Instrumentation & Control / Power Systems & High Voltage / Power Electronics / Power Engineering .
Electronics &Telecommunication --- Electronics / Electronics & Telecomm / Electronics & Communication .
Instrumentation & Control --- Electronics & Power / Electronics & Instrumentation / Instrumentation & Control / Electrical, Instrumentation & Control .
Computer Science Computer --- Science/ Information Technology/MCA (three years) .
Qualification for SAIL Management Trainee Administration
Job In HR and Marketing : The following qualification criteria should be matched for applying for this job . A Bachelors' degree in any discipline with 60% marks and with not less than 2 years full time MBA/PG Diploma in management with 60% marks in HR/PM&IR/Pers /MHROD is required for HR and Marketing for Marketing discipline. SC/ST/PWD and Departmental Candidates who have Bachelors' degree with 50% marks and MBA/PG Diploma in Management in the relevant discipline with just 50% marks are eligible to apply .
Age Limit: Born not earlier than June 1, 1979 (Upper age limit of 30 years is relaxable by 5years for SC/ST, by 3 years for OBC candidates and by 10 years for Physically Handicapped candidates). Those domiciled in the state of Jammu & Kashmir from1/1/80 to 31/12/89 will be allowed 5 years relaxation in upper age limit.

SAIL Exam Pattern & Selection Process
Selection process of SAIL MT exam involves a written test, followed by GD and interview. The current  SAIL exam notification does not says anything about the pattern of the written test excepting that there would be negative marks for wrong answers: 1/4th of the marks for that question.So the exam pattern given here is based on the previous years SAIL exam pattern.
SAIL written exam usually have following five sections to be answered in 2:25 hr:
Reasoning -                                                 45 marks
Quantitative Aptitude-                                35 marks
General Awareness-                                    35 marks
English Language-                                      35 marks
Technical Paper (specific to your stream)-    100 marks.

Group Discussion / Interview:
Candidates shortlisted on the basis of their performance in the written test will be intimated to appear for Group Discussion and Interview, which may be held at short notice. Please visit the SAIL website for information on the same. SC/ST/OBC candidates will be given relaxation in prescribed qualifying level for written test, group discussion and interview.
Training & Probation: Candidates selected as Management Trainee (Technical) will be placed on training for one year and will be registered as apprentices under the provisions of Apprentices Act, 1961. After successful completion of the training period, they will be on probation for one year.

SAIL MT vacancies 2011: 
There are 375 Management Trainee (MT) positions on offer with break-up as follows:
Management Trainee (MT) Technical:               318
Management Trainee (MT) Administration:       57
                        Salary  being offered by SAIL for MT: Basic Pay of Rs.20,600/- p.m. in the pay scale  of Rs.20600-3%-46500 (E-1). On successful completion of training the  Management Trainees are designated as Junior Managers in the same  scale of pay. With this salary for SAIL MT, the CTC is around Rs. 7 lakhs p.a with other benefits like Leave encashment, housing/HRA and free medical facility etc.

Important Dates for SAIL Management Trainee Exam 2011
1. Starting date for submitting applications through website 27.07.2011
2. Closing date for submitting applications through website 17.08.2011
3. Starting date for downloading of Admit Card from SAIL website for written examination 05.09.2011
4. Tentative Date of Written Test (will be confirmed in Admit Card) 25.09.2011

Download

Download Sail Placement Paper of G.K., Mental Ability, English, Technical 2010(All in One)

What is ISRO?
Indian Space Research Organisation(ISRO) is the primary body for space research under the control of the Government of India. ISRO was Established in August 15, 1969 (42 years ago).The objective of ISRO is to develop space technology and its application to various national tasks. Accordingly, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully operationalised two major satellite systems namely Indian National Satellites (INSAT) for communication services and Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites for management of natural resources; also, Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) for launching IRS type of satellites and Geostationary Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) for launching INSAT type of satellites.How prestigious an organisation is ISRO can be gauged from the fact that none other than the Prime Minister of this country is at its helm, as you can find from this Organisational Chart.You can know about more about this very prestigious organisation from Wikipedia page.
                       Almost each year ISRO conducts two separate exams for recruiting its manpower – one for its technical stream for the positions of Scientists/ Engineers and the other for its administrative stream for the positions of Administrative Officer/Accounts Officer/ Purchase & Stores Officer.

Eligibilities for ISRO
Academic Qualification eligibility:You need to be a first class BE/B.Tech or equivalent in Electronics, Mechanical and Computer Science engineering, with a minimum aggregate of 65% (average of all semesters for which results are available). Final year students can also apply, provided the results are declared within 31st August, 2011.

Download ISRO Scientists/ Engineers Exam Papers for Electronics:
Download ISRO Exam 2006 Electronics Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2007 Electronics Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2008 Electronics Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2009 Electronics Papers

Download ISRO Exam 2010 Electronics Papers.
Download ISRO Scientists/ Engineers Exam Papers for Computer Science:
Download ISRO Exam 2007 Computer Science Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2008 Computer Science Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2009 Computer Science Papers

Download ISRO Scientists/ Engineers Exam Papers for Mechanical:
Download ISRO Exam 2006 Mechanical Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2007 Mechanical Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2008 Mechanical Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2009 Mechanical Papers

Download ISRO Exam 2010 Mechanical Papers

Download ISRO Exam Papers for Administrative Officer:
Download ISRO Exam 2007 Administrative Officer Papers.

Download ISRO Exam 2008 Administrative Officer Papers

click the below link as per your stream:
Electronics Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam
Computer Science Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam
Mechanical Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam

Electronics Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam

(1) Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs:

Electrons and holes in semi-conductors, Carner Statistics, Mechanism of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, GTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; basic and Opto Electronics.

(2) Signals and Systems:

Classification of signals and systems; System modeling in terms of differential and difference equations; State variable representation; Fourier series; Fourier transforms and their application to system analysis; Laplace transforms and their application to system analysis; Convolution and superposition integrals and their applications; Z-transforms and their applications to the analysis and characterization of discrete time systems; Random signals and probability; Correlation functions; Spectral density; Response of linear system to random inputs.

(3) Network Theory:

Network analysis techniques; Network theorems, transient response, steady state sinusoidal response; Network graphs and their applications in network analysis; Tellegen’s theorem. Two port networks; Z, Y, h and transmission parameters. Combination of two ports, analysis of common two ports. Network functions: parts of network functions, obtaining a network function from a given part. Transmission criteria: delay and rise time, Elmore’s and other definitions effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.

(4) Electromagnetic Theory:

Analysis of electrostatic and magneto-static fields; Laplace’s and Poisson’s equations; Boundary value problems and their solutions; Maxwell’s equations; application to wave propagation in bounded and unbounded media; Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, microstrip lines; Basics of wave guides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.

(5) Analog Electronic Circuits:

Transistor biasing and stabilization. Small signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency. response. Wide banding techniques. Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators, Rectifiers and power supplies. Op Amp, PLL, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.

(6) Digital Electronic Circuits:

Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean function Karnaugh map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, Full adder; Digital comparator; Multiplexer De-multiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops. R-S, J-K, D and T flip-tops; Different types of counters and registers. Waveform generators. A/D and D/A converters. Semi-conductor memories.

(7) Control Systems:

Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity; Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems; Compensators; Industrial controllers.

(8) Communication Systems:

Basic information theory; Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstructions; Quantization and coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalization; Optical Communication: in free space and fiber optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite Communication.

(9) Microwave Engineering:

Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Wave guides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave Antennas, Microwave Measurements, Masers, Lasers; Micro-wave propagation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.

(10) Computer Engineering:

Number Systems. Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; Use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture; Processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization, I/o System Organization. Microprocessors: Architecture and instruction set of Microprocessor’s 8085 and 8086, Assembly language Programming. Microprocessor Based system design: typical examples. Personal computers and their typical uses.

Computer Science Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam

(1) Computer H/W Digital Logic: Logic functions, Minimization, Design and synthesis of Combinational and Sequential circuits — Number representation and Computer Arithmetic (fixed and floating point)

(2) Computer Organization: Machine instructions and addressing modes, ALU and Data-path, hardwired and micro-programmed control, Memory interface, I/O interface (Interrupt and DMA mode), Serial communication interface, Instruction pipelining, Cache, main and secondary storage.

(3) SOFTWARE SYSTEMS Data structures: Notion of abstract data types, Stack, Queue, List, Set, String, Tree, Binary search tree, Heap, Graph –

(4) Programming Methodology: C programming, Program control (iteration, recursion, Functions), Scope, Binding, Parameter passing, Elementary concepts of Object oriented, Functional and Logic Programming –

(5) Algorithms for problem solving: Tree and graph traversals, Connected components, Spanning trees, Shortest paths — Hashing, Sorting, Searching — Design techniques (Greedy, Dynamic Programming, Divide-and-conquer) –

(6) Compiler Design: Lexical analysis, Parsing, Syntax directed translation, Runtime environment, Code generation, Linking (static and dynamic) –

(7) Operating Systems: Classical concepts (concurrency, synchronization, deadlock), Processes, threads and Inter-process communication, CPU scheduling, Memory management, File systems, I/O systems, Protection and security.

(8) Databases: Relational model (ER-model, relational algebra, tuple calculus), Database design (integrity constraints, normal forms), Query languages (SQL), File structures (sequential files, indexing, B+ trees), Transactions and concurrency control –

(9) Computer Networks: ISO/OSI stack, sliding window protocol, LAN Technologies (Ethernet, Token ring), TCP/UDP, IP, Basic concepts of switches, gateways, and routers.

Mechanical Syllabus for ISRO Scientist Exam

1. ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

Linear Algebra: Algebra of matrices, system of linear equations, eigenvalues and eigenvectors.

Calculus: Taylor Series, Fourier Series, partial derivatives, total derivatives, definite and improper integrals, multiple integrals.

Vector Calculus: Gradient, divergence and curl, line and surface integrals, Green, Gauss and Stokes theorems.

Differential Equations: Linear ODEs, first order non-linear ODEs, initial and boundary value problems, Laplace transform, PDEs-Laplace, wave and diffusion equations.

Numerical Methods: Solution of system of linear equations, interpolation, numerical integration, Newton-Raphson method, Runge-Kutta method.

Probability & Statistics: Gaussian, Weibul distribution and their properties, method of least squares, regression analysis, analysis of variance.

2. APPLIED MECHANICS AND DESIGN

Engineering Mechanics: Equivalent force systems, free-body concepts, equations of equilibrium, trusses and frames, virtual work and minimum potential energy. Kinematics and dynamics of particles and rigid bodies, impulse and momentum (linear and angular), energy methods, central force motion.

Strength of Materials: Stress and strain, stress-strain relationship and elastic constants, Mohrs circle for plane stress and plane strain, shear force and bending moment diagrams, bending and shear stresses, deflection of beams torsion of circular shafts, thin and thick cylinders, Eulers theory of columns, strain energy methods, thermal stresses.

Theory of Machines: Displacement, velocity and acceleration, analysis of plane mechanisms, dynamic analysis of slider-crank mechanism, planar cams and followers, gear tooth profiles, kinematics and design of gears, governors and flywheels, balancing of reciprocating and rotating masses.Vibrations: Free and forced vibration of single degree freedom systems, effect of damping, vibration isolation, resonance, critical speed of rotors.

Design of Machine Elements: Design for static and dynamic loading, failure theories, fatigue strength; design of bolted, riveted and welded joints; design of shafts and keys; design of spur gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings; brakes and clutches; belt, ropes and chain drives.

3. FLUID MECHANICS AND THERMAL SCIENCES

Fluid Mechanics: Fluid properties, fluid statics, manometry, buoyancy; Control-volume analysis of mass, momentum and energy, fluid acceleration; Differential equation of continuity and momentum; Bernoullis equation; Viscous flow of incompressible fluids; Boundary layer, Elementary turbulent flow; Flow through pipes, head losses in pipes, bends etc.

Heat-Transfer: Modes of heat transfer; One dimensional heat conduction, resistance concept, electrical analogy, unsteady heat conduction, fins; Dimensionless parameters in free and forced convective heat transfer, Various correlations for heat transfer in flow over flat plates and through pipes; Thermal boundary layer; effect of turbulence; Radiative heat transfer, black and grey surfaces, shape factors, network analysis; Heat exchanger performance, LMTD and NTU methods.

Thermodynamics: Zeroth, First and Second laws of thermodynamics; Thermodynamic system and processes; Irreversibility and availability; Behaviour of ideal and real gases, Properties of pure substances, calculation of work and heat in ideal processes; Analysis of thermodynamic cycles related to energy conversion; Carnot, Rankine, Otto, Diesel, Brayton and Vapour compression cycles.

Power Plant Engineering: Steam generators; Steam power cycles; Steam turbines; impulse and reaction principles, velocity diagrams, pressure and velocity compounding; Reheating and reheat factor; Condensers and feed heaters.I.C. Engines: Requirements and suitability of fuels in IC engines, fuel ratings, fuel-air mixture requirements; Normal combustion in SI and CI engines; Engine performance calculations.

Refrigeration and air-conditioning: Refrigerant compressors, expansion devices, condensers and evaporators; Properties of moist air, psychrometric chart, basic psychometric processes.

Turbomachinery: Components of gas turbines; Compression processes, Centrifugal and Axial flow compressors; Axial flow turbines, elementary theory; Hydraulic turbines; Euler-Turbine equation; Specific speed, Pelton-wheel, Francis and Kaplan turbines; Centrifugal pumps.

4. MANUFACTURING AND INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING

Engineering Materials: Structure and properties of engineering materials and their applications, heat treatment.

Metal Casting: Casting processes (expendable and non-expendable) -pattern, moulds and cores, Heating and pouring, Solidification and cooling, Gating Design, Design considerations, defects.

Forming Processes: Stress-strain diagrams for ductile and brittle material, Plastic deformation and yield criteria, Fundamentals of hot and cold working processes, Bulk metal forming processes (forging, rolling extrusion, drawing), Sheet metal working processes (punching, blanking, bending, deep drawing, coining, spinning, Load estimation using homogeneous deformation methods, Defects). Processing of Powder metals- Atomization, compaction, sintering, secondary and finishing operations. Forming and shaping of Plastics- Extrusion, Injection Molding.

Joining Processes: Physics of welding, Fusion and non-fusion welding processes, brazing and soldering, Adhesive bonding, Design considerations in welding, Weld quality defects.Machining and Machine Tool

Operations: Mechanics of machining, Single and multi-point cutting tools, Tool geometry and materials, Tool life and wear, cutting fluids, Machinability, Economics of machining, non-traditional machining processes.

Metrology and Inspection: Limits, fits and tolerances, linear and angular measurements, comparators, gauge design, interferometry, Form and finish measurement, measurement of screw threads, Alignment and testing methods.

Tool Engineering: Principles of work holding, Design of jigs and fixtures. Computer Integrated Manufacturing: Basic concepts of CAD, CAM and their integration tools.

Manufacturing Analysis: Part-print analysis, tolerance analysis in manufacturing and assembly, time and cost analysis.

Work-Study: Method study, work measurement time study, work sampling, job evaluation, merit rating.

Production Planning and Control: Forecasting models, aggregate production planning, master scheduling, materials requirements planning.

Inventory Control: Deterministic and probabilistic models, safety stock inventory control systems.

Operations Research: Linear programming, simplex and duplex method, transportation, assignment, network flow models, simple queuing models, PERT and CPM.